Q. Why is the baptism of the Holy Spirit (Matt. 3:11), referred to so early in the gospels?
A. John Baptist, in announcing Jehovah-Messiah to His people in Matthew’s gospel, brings His two advents together whether in grace or judgment. This was suited to His gospel because He has, as Messiah, to do with both. Luke 3:16 also speaks of the two great actions, because as Son of Man the character in which Luke presents Him, He has to do with judgment as well as grace and suffering. Mark 1:8, and John 1:33, both omit that of “fire”; the former having to do with His then service on earth, and present service of grace with His servants — not with judgment. John only speaks of His baptizing with the Holy Spirit as connected with His revelation in grace of the Father. The thought, in presenting it so early in the gospels, is rather the person who was to do it, in contrast to His fore-runner, who baptized with water unto repentance, &c. We know it was not accomplished until Acts 2, on the day of Pentecost with the Jews; and Acts 10, subsequently with the Gentiles. See Acts 1:5, where only that of the Holy Spirit is named; not that of the fire of judgment, which will take place at His second advent, with the world. Also Acts 11:15-16, where the Gentiles are connected with this baptism. (See also 1 Cor. 12:13.)