Q. 119. Will you kindly explain Ephesians 4:4? Is the oneness expressed in the loaf (1 Corinthians 10)? A. F. E.
A. Ephesians 4:4-6 gives the seven unities of the Christian faith. The first, that of the body of Christ, is expressed by the fact of all partaking of one loaf at the Lord’s Supper, 1 Corinthians 10:17. The loaf thus not only sets forth Christ’s actual body broken for us in death, but also reminds us of His spiritual body of which we all are members.
Q. 120. Please explain 1 Corinthians 3:15. A. F. E.
A. These would seem to refer to a true child of God in contrast to ver. 16, 17, which appear to speak only of professors (See Q. 75, p. 83). In this case the man is not destroyed, but, his work being built of materials that can not stand the searching fire of God’s judgment, is all burnt up; he, himself being saved, because a true believer. It is sad to think that a christian may thus at the end lose all the fruits of a hard and laborious life, unless the work has really been of God, and according to the immutable principles of His written word.
Q. 121. What is the difference in Scripture between the blood, death, and cross of Christ?
A. Refer to Q. 330, vol. 1. p. 90. The blood of Christ is the atoning value of His death between God and the sinner (Romans 3, &c.) The death is rather the delivering power of Christ’s work from sin and Satan; hence it is not so much between me and God, as between myself and sin, and Satan (Romans 9), while the cross is rather the separating effect of the death of Christ between me and the world, (Galatians 6) The cross is the measure of the rejection of Christ, the death the delivering power, and the blood the atoning value of Calvary.
Q. 122. Do the “love feasts” of 2 Peter 2:13, and Jude 12, (R. V.) refer to the Lord’s supper, or a common meal of love? S. R. T.
A. Early in New Testament times the Lord’s supper seems to have been preceded by the “Agapee,” or feast of love. See 1 Corinthians 11 where the apostle, if he does not actually separate the two, enjoins greater order and decorum at the first. As time went on, the love feast gradually got more and more separate from the Lord’s supper, until it finally died out. The expressions in the passages alluded to, clearly refer to the common love feast.
Q. 123. Will you kindly give the meaning of “double” in Isaiah 40:2? Is it the same as pardon? E,
A. The result is pardon on the ground of having received double punishment for her sins. Of course, it is God’s grace that reckons thus, looking at the Jews in connection with their Messiah; for apart from Him no amount of suffering could bring a righteous pardon for sin against God. This however, is a question of governmental pardon only.
Q. 124. Please explain Isaiah 28:16 (last clause) and say what bearing it has on what goes before, and what application (if any) to us. E.
A. The New Testament (1 Peter 2) following the Septuagint reads, “shall not be confounded,” and clearly refers to the contrast between those who rest on a sure foundation, and those who make lies their refuge (v. 15). This application of the passage is as forcible to us as to the Jew. The text (founded on our Authorized Version, “shall not make haste”) has also been used to teach that Christians should not act with undue haste or from impulse.
Q. 125. What position will children dying in infancy have in heaven? Will they form part of the church which is Christ’s body? B.
A. Children who die young are saved in virtue of the death of Christ (Matthew 18:11). They are therefore among those who are Christ’s, and are thus raised and changed at His coming (1 Corinthians 15:23). We are not aware that anything further is said about them, but shall be glad to have any scriptural thoughts on this interesting subject.
Q. 126. Please explain “Henceforth know we no man after the flesh.” E.
A. It means that the Christian is brought into a new sphere, and new relationships by the death and resurrection of Christ. The apostles had known Christ as the Messiah after the flesh. But He had died, and now in resurrection they know Him in His new character as head of the new creation and of the churchapter Their links also with Christians were all formed on this new and heavenly ground.
Q. 127. What was the name of David’s mother? E.
A. It appears probable from a careful comparison of 2 Samuel 17:25, and 1 Chronicles 2:16 that her name was Nahash—a serpent, unless the marginal reading be preferable that reads “Jesse” instead.
Q. 128. How are believers practically sanctified? E.
A. By becoming servants to God according to Romans 6:22, yielding their bodies a living sacrifice (Romans 12:1, 2), and by cleansing themselves from all filthiness of flesh and spirit inwardly, as well as ungodly connections outwardly (2 Corinthians 6 and 7:1).
Q. 129. What is the difference between “the kingdom of heaven” in Matthew and the “kingdom of God” in Luke? T. H.
A. Refer to Q. 102, p. 88, where this question is answered.
Q. 130. Please explain the last clause of James 3:9. Z.
A. It clearly refers to Genesis 1:26, but we should be glad of further light as to what that means. In a general sense it no doubt sets forth the high qualities in which man differs from any other created being.
Q. 131. Does “we may have confidence,” 1 John 2:28, refer to the apostle as having been instrumental in the conversion of those to whom he wrote? Z.
A. Certainly—they were the fruit of his labors. Compare 2 John; and 1 Corinthians 3:15.
Q. 132. Is “Hagan” to which Jacob was bidden to flee in Genesis 27:43, the same as Padan-aram, Genesis 28:2? Z.
Haran is a city, Genesis 24:10, in Padan-aram,—that is “ the table land of Aram”—a northern district of Mesopotamia. The former is therefore the name of a city, the latter of an immense tract of country of greater extent than modern Syria.
Q. 133. What is meant by the “middle wall of partition,” Ephesians 2:14? Z.
A. The legal ceremonies and ordinances that fenced the Jew off from the Gentile, thus forming a partition wall between them.
Q. 134. How can Satan be said to have the power of death, Hebrews 2:14? H. J. M.
A. Man (Adam), seeking to be independent of God. was deceived by Satan, and became subject to death and to the dominion of Satan, who held over him the fear of death which kept him in bondage, testifying as it did both to the righteous judgment of God, and to his inability to escape the consequences of sin. Hence Satan’s power is gone for those from whom the fear of death is removed by the delivering work of Christ.
Q. 135. Please explain Matthew 5:34, 35, 36, “Swear not at all: neither by heaven” etc. Would such an expression as “by Jove” be forbidden by this passage? W. F.
A. The passage rather needs obeying than explaining, for it is so plain that none could misunderstand it. Such expressions as you refer to need no words of ours to chew how unsuitable they are to christian language. We do not speak of the unconverted, as such passages are not addressed to them at all.
Q. 136. What are the “hornets” spoken of in Exodus 23:28; Deuteronomy 7:20; Joshua 24:1, 2? Z.
A. We cannot say whether the literal insects are meant. We have historical proof that even armies have been seriously molested by swarms of hornets Moreover these insects abounded in Palestine. The simile of “chasing like bees” is found in Deuteronomy 1:44, and it is possible that the word may be merely so used in these passages to symbolize the intense dread that God would put upon the Canaanites according to Exodus 15:16, and Deuteronomy 2:25. —See also Isaiah 7:18.
Q. 137. Please say why it was not wrong to eat the shewbread and do good on the sabbath, Matthew 12:1-14. E. B.
A. Because the Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath. We must carefully distinguish between the Divine law and the Rabbis’ traditions as to the Sabbath day. The former, while prohibiting all secular and unnecessary labor, allowed even extra labor in religious things, for the morning and evening sacrifices were doubled on the Sabbath, and so much work had to be done that it became a saying, “There is no Sabbath in holy things.” To this Christ appeals in 12:5. Feasts were also allowed on Sabbath days. The tradition of the Rabbis, however, prohibited all action on the Sabbath, and was full of trivial absurdities, leading them, while professedly zealous for the letter, entirely to neglect the spirit of the law. The objection raised by the Pharisees in John 5:10, is based no doubt on Jeremiah 17:21-27, though all can distinguish between such a necessary act and bearing burdens in connection with business.
Q. 138. What is the meaning of the “second Sabbath after the first?” E. B.
A. It has been thought that this expression refers to the seven Sabbaths between the wave sheaf and Pentecost. On the morrow after the first Sabbath the wave sheaf was offered, before which it was contrary to God’s law to eat green ears of corn (Leviticus 23:14); this was the next and therefore the first Sabbath they could do so.
Q. 139. Can you give the correct reading for Isaiah 50:4? E. B.
A. Please say what is your difficulty the passage is a lovely picture of Christ on earth as God’s servant. The contrast is between the rebellious people who would not hear when Jehovah spoke (ver. 2), and the perfect Servant whose ever attentive ear was the secret of His ready tongue.
Q. 140. (1) In Exodus 17:1-7, and Numbers 20:1-13, the name Meribah is given. Were Rephidim and Kadesh near each other? or were two different places named Meribah? (2) Were they supplied with water from the rock in Horeb, (Exodus 17) all the journey, and did it fail in Numbers 20:1-13? E. B.
A. (1) Meribah, meaning contradiction, contention, striving, might well be a name given to two separate places so characterized. Kadesh and Rephidim lie far apart, the one near the beginning of the wilderness journey, and the other at the borders of Canaan. (2) On two separate occasions when there was a failure in the natural supplies that are found in the wilderness of the wanderings (which was nowhere the sandy desert so often supposed) water was miraculously provided out of a rock; on the latter occasion Moses sinned, and therefore never entered the land.
Q. 141. “For the invisible things of Him from the creation of the world are clearly seen,” (Romans 1:20.) What are the “invisible things?” E. B.
A. Does not the apostle clearly answer your question? His eternal power and Godhead,” witnessed to by the rain from heaven, the fruitful seasons (Acts 14:17) and all the varied glories of creation. This is also the argument of the closing chapters of Job.
Q. 142. Will you be kind enough to explain Matthew 12:20? S. B.
A. The quotation is from Isaiah 42:3. The popular explanation is that the condescension of the Lord is such that He will not despise or neglect the feeblest, represented by “a bruised reed” or a “smoking flax.” Another interpretation rests on the word. “till,” and is to the effect that the Lord was not on earth to execute judgment on any represented by the reed or flax, but that He would judge such in a coming day. We trust we shall receive some further replies to this query.
Q. 143. Does not the “day of the Lord” begin when the church is taken away, and close at the commencement of the millennium, or does it go on through to the end of time? Is it not characterized by such scriptures as Daniel 12:1; Zechariah 14; Malachi 4:1; Matthew 24:36, and others? E. L.
A. The day of the Lord begins with Christ’s public and sudden appearance in the clouds of heaven (1 Thessalonians 5:2), and will last through the millennium according to 2 Peter 3:8, and will even include at the close the passing away of the heaven and the earth. It does not begin before the church is taken away, for Christ comes for her as “the morning star.” The day does not begin until the rising of the Sun according to Malachi 4, which prefigures the public return of the Son of Man as depicted in Revelation 19. Inasmuch as the saints come with Christ out of heaven, they must have been taken there previously.
Q. 144. Would you kindly explain Mark 3:28, 29? H. R.
A. Compare Matthew 12:31,32. You will see that what the Lord means by “ speaking against “ the Holy Ghost is attributing His work to the power of Satan. Those who thus spoke against the Holy Ghost should not be forgiven; neither in that age (that of the law), nor in the age to come (that of Messiah’s reign). The Lord having taken His place as Son of Man in humiliation, this solemn warning did not extend to words spoken against Himself.
Q. 145. Would you kindly distinguish between “envy” and “jealousy” as used in Scripture. In the R. V. it has “jealousy” where “envy” is used in the A. V. (Acts 13:45.)
A. The proper word for envy only occurs in the New Testament as follows: —Matthew 27:18; Mark 15:10; Romans 1:29; Galatians 5:21; Philippians 1:15; 1 Timothy 6:4; Titus 3:3; James 4:6; 1 Peter 2:1, and is always used in a bad sense. The other word translated envy, zeal, fervent mind, jealousy, etc. has two meanings, according to its use; the one is equivalent to envy, and the word is so used in 2 Corinthians 12:20; Jasmes 3:14, &c. The other meaning is rather that of honorable emulation than envy. The difference between the two has been beautifully defined “We ought by all means to note the difference between envy and emulation; which latter is a brave and noble thing, and quite of another nature, as consisting only in a generous imitation of something excellent, and that, such an imitation as scorns to fall short of its copy, but strives, if possible, to outdo it. The emulator is impatient of a superior, not by depressing or maligning another, but by perfecting himself.” The word is used in this better sense in John 2:17 (zeal); 2 Corinthians 7:7 (fervent mind); 2 Corinthians 9:2 (zeal): 1 Corinthians 12:31 (covet earnestly.) &c., &c., Acts 13:45, is evidently a bad use of the word.
Q. 146. Please explain Matthew 8:4. T. H.
A. Jesus simply told the man to act as the law directed him in Leviticus 14:3.
Q. 147. Is “defiled” in Deuteronomy 22:9 a correct translation? Z.
A. The word literally signifies “set apart,” and hence it is usually applied to holy things. It seems here to mean that the crop thus mingled must be set apart, and could not be available for man’s use, being obtained in contrariety to the Lord’s commands, which taught distinctiveness and separation in every transaction in life. In Benisch’s Jewish School and Family Bible (a Version made under authority), the verse is thus translated: “ Thou shalt not sow thy vineyard with two kinds of seed; lest thy fullness, the seed which thou have sown, and the increase of thy vineyard, become unlawful.” In Leviticus 27:10 a somewhat similar meaning to that of the use assigned to this word defiled, is conveyed by the expression holy (a word from the same root) referring to a beast brought for sacrifice, which even if “bad” i.e. not suitable on account of some blemish, could not be redeemed, taken back for the use of the offerer, or even exchanged, but fell to the portion of the priests for their maintenance.
Q. 148. Nehemiah 8:10. Is the thought here, the joy the people had in the Lord, or the Lord’s own joy in His people at that moment? What light does the Hebrew throw on this? Z.
A. The word used for joy in this passage occurs in the Hebrew Bible only here, in 1 Chronicles 16:27, (where it is translated gladness,) and Ezra 6:16. It literally signifies praise, and evidently seems to refer to the joy of the people in the Lord, joy which they first received from Him, John 15:11, to strengthen them in their path through life. It has been well said that “ the devout soul derives strength from godly thankfulness, and holy joy, because that God will help those who praise Him to rejoice in Him. If the strength of the Lord is our joy, then the joy of the Lord will be our strength.” A depressed Christian cannot be a strong Christian.
Q. 149. Why did the Lord frequently instruct those whom He healed to “ tell no man,” as in Mark 8:26, also in ver. 30, under other circumstances? (2) Why did He justify David and the priests, Matthew 12:3-5? W.
A. (1) Christ was not here to glorify Himself or to speak of Himself, but of His Father. He never sought publicity though giving all who had ears to hear, and eyes to see, opportunities of recognizing Him as the Son of God. The command was in perfect keeping with the character of His mission, and especially so in Mark as the perfect servant. (2) In showing that the Sabbath was made for man and not man for the Sabbath, we could however say that Christ justified David. Did He not rather chew that if the king’s followers could act on an emergency in such a manner, how could the pharisees (who all revered David) find fault with His disciples who had broken no law, but merely their tradition? See also Deuteronomy 23:25; Q. 137, 138 ante.
Q. 150. Ecclesiastes 9 seems to teach the doctrine of annihilation, but is not the “preacher” looking at events from man’s side and not according the wisdom that God teaches? W.
A. We cannot agree with you that annihilation is here taught. Refer to Q. 319, vol. 1, p. 88, and you will see that the standpoint of the whole book is a survey of all on which the sun shines, hence verse 6 is quite true. Death closes a man’s earthly career in this world forever; what happens to him hereafter, and in another world is not the subject, and would be quite out of place if introduced here.
Q. 151. In Numbers 1:33-35 the tribe of Ephraim is numbered as 40,500, and that of Manasseh as 32,200. In Chapter 26:34-37 Manasseh is increased to 52,700, while Ephraim is decreased to 32,500. How is this, for did not Jacob prophesy that Ephraim should surpass Manasseh? W. J. B.
A. The decrease is very remarkable, but was only temporary (Deuteronomy 33:17), and the subsequent history of the tribe which got its first ascendency under Joshua and culminated in becoming a kingdom under Jeroboam, abundantly fulfilled the prophecy of Jacob.
Q. 152. What is the lawful use of the law spoken of in 1 Timothy 1:8? W. J. B.
A. That for which it was intended, namely, as a rule for man in the flesh, (not that he could ever keep it, but to demonstrate that he could not). The Christian is not under law. Hence to put him under it is not a lawful use of it; nevertheless he is to walk in the spirit of it and indeed far beyond it. (Matthew 5 &c.)
Q. 153. (1) Who are the “sons of God,” Genesis 6:2? (2) Please explain Exodus 24 10, 11. E. S. M.
A. (1) It is generally thought that they were those on the earth who feared God (the Shem line) for which reason they are called “sons of God,” as Adam was (Luke 3:38); that their sin consisted m their intermarrying with a godless race (the Cain line,) thus furnishing the first example of the mingling of hot and cold, of which Laodicea (Revelation 3) is the last and worst. There is much however to support a contrary view, viz., that angels are here referred to (see Job 1:6, and Jude 6). The whole of heathen mythology also shows that the idea of a race of giants, the offspring of a superior race of beings intermarrying with the human race, was wide-spread. Against this thought, Matthew 22:30, and Hebrews 1:7 have been urged, but they are not conclusive, being only descriptive of the normal state of unfallen angelic beings. On the whole, we are inclined to believe that Jude especially refers to this time, and that “sons of God” here means angels. (2) Refer to vol. 1, p. 66, Q. 304.
Q. 154. (1) When was the “writing” from Elijah written, 2 Chronicles 21:12? (2) Is it known why the blind and the lame were “hated of David’s soul,” 2 Samuel 5:8? E. S. M.
A. (1) We read of Jehoshaphat’s death and Jehoram coming to the throne before we read of Elijah’s translation; and hearing of his great wickedness in murdering his brethren, Elijah probably left this writing to be sent to the king on the first opportunity. We know nothing certain beyond the fact mentioned here. (2) If we read ver. 8 according to the margin, it would appear that the very cripples confident in the power of their stronghold had insulted David who was not likely to overlook the offense. It is worthy of note that “great David’s greater Son “healed the blind and the lame in the temple at the same spot.
Q. 155. (1) Can the believer by faith in Christ claim the entire redemption of his body from Satan’s power? (2) Does not Deuteronomy 7:15 apply equally to the obedient believer now whose life is consecrated to the glory of God? F.
A. We do not quite grasp your question. We wait for the redemption of our body as a fact. As a matter of faith, the price has been paid, and we are redeemed body and soul. Still if Christ does not come, death may yet claim our bodies, that “last enemy” which is surely the proof of the power of sin and of the work of Satan. (2) Not necessarily. Israel was an earthly people and all their blessings were bodily and temporal. The Christian is not of the earth and his blessings are spiritual, (though God surely cares for the body too,) and sickness is not always the result of sin. It often is however from sin, 1 Corinthians 11, &c. We would therefore agree that in a general way such a passage is often true of those you speak of, but could not lay it down as a doctrine.
Q. 156. Did Satan claim the body of Moses, or what was the dispute about in Jude 9? F.
A. It appears that he did, and it has been thought that, inasmuch as Moses and Elias probably are to be the two witnesses in the last day, and appeared at the transfiguration, the object of Satan was to prevent the presence of one by having possession of his body. For two witnesses were required by the Jewish laws to convict of any great crime, such as the crucifixion of Christ. The simpler reason however would be that he wanted to obtain it in order to make it an object of worship to Israel, and thus become a snare to them.
Q. 157. What is the meaning of “the Mystery of God, and of the Father, and of Christ,” Colossians 2:2? A.
A. The R. V. reads “that they may know the mystery of God, even Christ,” &c. Another critical reading is “ to the full knowledge of the mystery of God, in which are hid all the treasures,” &c. If the R. V. is right the mystery is clearly “ God manifest in flesh,” i.e. Christ, otherwise the mystery would evidently refer to Ephesians 3.
Q. 158. In 1 Thessalonians 5 it is said “ That day shall not overtake you as a thief.” Does it not seem from this that the Church will be on earth until the Lord’s appearing in judgment? The passage can scarcely mean “ It shall not overtake you at all.” What would you consider the strongest passage to support two comings? J. H. B.
A. We do not quite know from what version you are quoting. The A. V, reads “ But ye, brethren are not in darkness, that that day should overtake you as a thief;” the R. V. is practically the same. We fear therefore that your rendering is merely a misquotation and one on which you have based an erroneous idea. The attentive reader will readily discern the difference between “that it should,” and “it shall.” The day of wrath and judgment of Chapter 5 is not for the christian (ver. 9) it being revealed in Chapter 4 that he will be caught up previously to heaven, thence to return with Christ according to Revelation 19. Chapter 5:1 shows that they needed no instruction as to the public appearing, Chapter 4:14-17 shows that they required a good deal as to the previous coming into the air.
Q. 159. What does the third part of the sun and moon being darkened, (Revelation 8:12) mean? Is it that the day and night will be shortened, or is it simply that light will not be so intense? J. H. B.
A. We should understand it to mean the latter, that is, that its light would all be dim and dull.
Q. 160. What are “vows” spoken of in the Old Testament? Have they any meaning for us in principle or practice? T. R.
A. Devoting one’s person (Numbers 6.2), one’s children (1 Samuel 1:11), one’s property (Genesis 28:22), &c. to God. The Nazarite vow is the one most spoken of (Numbers 6) and is the pattern of the life of Christ on earth, and of the lives of all who tread in His footsteps in real separation from this world, and from sin by the power of the cross of Christ (Galatians). The separation, however, is inward now, not by outward signs as in the Old Testament. The measure of christian devotedness is found in Christ’s life, the example of it in Philippians and the exhortation to it in Romans 12.
Q. 161. Why was the whole sacrifice not burnt in Leviticus 1:16, as in the other burnt offerings? here the crop and feathers were to be cast aside. A. P. C.
A. You will find from Leviticus 7:8 that the skin of the burnt offering (to which the feathers of the bird corresponds) was not burnt. Hence there is the most perfect analogy.
Q. 162. Is the crown of life (Revelation 2:10) only for martyrs, the crown of glory (1 Peter 5:4) only for those who shepherd the flock, and the crown of righteousness (2 Timothy 4:8) only for those who love His appearing, or will each believer receive all these crowns? H. C,
A. The crown of gold (Revelation 4:10) seems common to all, and the three you have alluded to are only promised as special rewards for special service. See p. 106.
Q. 163. (1) Do the 24 elders in Revelation represent the church? (2) Is the tree of life (Revelation 2:7) Christ Himself? (3) What is meant by the hidden manna, and the white stone in Revelation 2:17? and (4) What by the leaves of the tree in Revelation 22:2? H. C.
A. (1) We cannot say that they represent the church as suchapter Inasmuch as saints are said to be kings and priests unto God, (chaps. 1 and 5) the number 24 certainly suggests an analogy with the 24 courses of priests appointed by David just before the glorious reign of Solomon (1 Chronicles 24) It is clear that the saints seen on earth in Chapter 1 as kings and priests are the same here in their priestly order, and royal position (crowns and thrones) in heaven. (2) Yes. (3) Christ in His humiliation remembered in all the glories of heaven, referring to the pot of manna laid up before the Lord in the Holy of Holies, The white stone refers to the old way of voting, when black stones were given against the candidate and white stones in his favor. It means a mark of special individual favor. (4) We cannot say.
Q. 164. Is “loving kindness” in Psalms 63:3 the right word? E. B.
A. Yes, the word is also frequently translated mercy.