Notice. All queries on Biblical subjects received up to the 3rd of each month, are inserted here in the following month. Wherever possible, answers are given which however must by no means be considered final, as discussion and further replies to the queries are invited, and the latter will be inserted (with the correspondent’s initials attached) whenever helpful, it being however distinctly understood that the Editor holds himself responsible for no replies to which initials are attached. Any questions on practical Christian life and conduct must be addressed to the, Editor of the Young Believer (at the same address) and will be answered. in the pages of that magazine under the head of “Practical Queries.”
Q. 33. In a Bible Almanac for 1881, I see that “the Rose of Sharon” is the Church, in Q. 376 it is said to be Christ, which is right? E. B.
A. As rendered in our English version the “ rose of Sharon “ and the “ lily of the valley “ appear doubtless to refer to the same person. But we believe the construction favors the thought expressed before that the “rose” refers to Christ, and the “lily,” connected with the next verse, to His Bride. We have received a further communication on this verse which we hope to insert next month.
Q. 34. Please explain “Work out your own salvation, &c.” Philippians 2:12. E. B.
A. This passage speaks of salvation as future, as also Romans 13:11.; 1 Thessalonians 5:8,9; 2 Thessalonians 2:13; 2 Timothy 2:10; Hebrews 9:28; and both the epistles of Peter (excepting 1 Peter 1:9, where soul salvation is a present reality), God works in me, what I work out with fear (godly fear) and trembling, and the one that most fears to grieve God is the one who most fully knows His unchanging love. It were well if this godly fear and trembling were more felt amongst us; not the fear of being lost, which cannot exist in the heart that rests in God’s word, but the fear of sinning against such infinite grace and perfect love.
Q. 35. Please explain “ Oh, that thou wouldest rend the heavens, and come down!” Isaiah 64:1. Does it refer to the Lord’s coming? E. B.
A. This seems a still more earnest expression than 43:15, and is a call to God to manifest Himself in all His power on behalf of His people, to be fulfilled doubtless when Messiah stands once again on Mount Olivet. Observe verse 4, which is often quoted instead of 1 Corinthians 2:9,10, the former sheaving that to the Jews the glorious blessings of the future were not revealed, the latter stating that to the Christian by the Spirit they are.
Q. 36. Please explain briefly (1) Revelation 12 also (2) Zechariah 5:7-11. J. R. R.
A. (1) In Revelation 12 we get symbolically the Jewish people—Christ born of the seed of David— the power of Satan (Herod, &c.) arrayed against Him, and deliverance effected by God in taking up the man-child to His throne. The Jewish remnant (ver. 6) flee into the wilderness, the cause of their flight being accounted for (ver. 7-13) by the casting down of Satan to the earth, and are persecuted for 3 1/2 years, being the half of Daniel’s last week. (2) By some this is thought to mean that the spirit of idolatry that originally came from Shinar is here seen to be shut up and rapidly transported by Divine power out of Judaea back to its native place in Babylon, no more to corrupt Israel.
Q. 37. In Exodus 7, it says Moses was fourscore, and Aaron fourscore and three. But we find Aaron died at Mount Hor at the age of 123 (Numbers 33:39), was this the same year that Moses died, for he died at the age of 120? A. D. J.
A. Aaron did not die till the forty years wandering were almost over, and we see no reason to doubt that within the same twelve months Moses died also.
Q. 38. Please explain Galatians 6:2, in connection with ver. 5, which seems to contradict it. A. D. J.
A. Verse 2 teaches unselfishness and care for others, according to the word and example of Christ, whereas verse 5 shows that each one must bear the weight of his own personal responsibility to God for all his work and actions (of course as a Christian). The word burden is not the same in the two verses. The former meaning what is heavy and presses down, the other simply a freight or a full load.
Q. 39. Is Moses or Aaron meant in Numbers 16:48? Does this refer to Christ at the present time? Z.
A. Aaron as priest was the only one who by intercession could stand between the living and the dead, and the incense, fragrant in type with Christ, stayed God’s righteous judgments on His rebellious people. The very priesthood that Korah had despised was the only means of saving the people. So now it is only by the exercise of Christ’s priesthood that a people full of sins and failures are brought through the wilderness. Observe no fresh sacrifice is offered, no blood shed. The action is purely priestly intercession, though based doubtless on the blood ever sprinkled within the veil.
Q. 40. Does the word “ bring” in 1 Thessalonians 4:14, refer to the resurrection of sleeping saints when the Lord comes, or to His bringing them with Him when He appears to the world? In Hebrews 13:20 the word brought is applied to the Lord’s resurrection as being accomplished by God. W. H. M.
A. Verse 14 is general, and merely states the fact generally that all the dead (whom the Thessalonians appeared to have given up all hope of ever seeing again) would be brought with Christ at His public appearing from heaven. From verse 15 we get the special word of the Lord to tell us that this is brought about by their being previously caught up to heaven when the Lord descends into the air to meet them. “ Brought,” in Hebrews 13:20 is a different word, and is “brought back again” from the dead, not from heaven.
Q. 41. Please explain (1) Luke 13:20, 21, and (2) 2 Chronicles 21:12. E. S. M.
A. (1) We must bear in mind that “leaven” is everywhere a type of a hidden evil principle. Therefore just as three measures of meal (originally pure flour) get everywhere pervaded by the working of a small quantity of leaven, so that which was originally set up in purity has become pervaded everywhere with mere empty profession, and contains every sort of corruption. That which bears the name of Christ, “Christendom,” is now everywhere pervaded with evil. (2) Please say what is your difficulty here.
Q. 42. Does 2 Peter 1:9 refer to true believers? Z.
A. Those is verse 9 may be true believers, for “these things” that they lack do not include faith, but seven graces which were to be added to faith; and it is faith that saves, not these graces though they are the blessed fruits of the new life. A Christian who lacks these though saved, has no insight into Divine things, has not grown in grace or the knowledge of the Lord, and moreover is in great danger of slipping into the world and forgetting the practical purity and separation that become the Christian path.
Q. 43. What is the true force of 1 Timothy 4:8? Does it mean “ for a short time,, (See Y. B. vol 1. p. 38) or for small things? Z.
A. Our English version reads in the Margin “for a little time,” the R. V. simply “for a little.” (which indeed is all the Greek warrants.) The passage may either be taken as contrasting “ a little time” with the “ life that now is and that which is to come” or as you suggest “small things” with all things” The great point is to see that it is said to profit for a little, not to be of little profit.
Q. 44. Does “ for us all “ Romans 8:32, mean all men or only believers? Z.
A. The passage all through is addressed to those who “are in Christ Jesus,” and does not therefore raise the question as to the scope of Christ’s death. That is answered elsewhere.
Q. 45. Why is blood named first in John 19:34, and water first in 1 John 5:6-8? Does water here refer to cleansing by the Word? Z.
A. In the Gospel “the blood” is mentioned first by the Apostle, because it is God’s side of the atonement, and answers His claims on man as a sinner. In the Epistle, water is uniformly named first because it is a question of our walk as Christians, and water is the symbol of the cleansing action of the Word by which and the Spirit, we are born again (John 3).
Q. 46. What is meant by a covenant of salt, or a perpetual covenant, Numbers 18:19? Z.
A. A covenant of salt throughout the East is synonymous with an inviolable pledge. It is also symbolical of fidelity and friendship. Hence during the Indian mutiny there were great complaints by the natives against the men who had eaten our salt and then turned against us.
Q. 47. How is the expression “the body of Christ,” Colossians 2:17, to be understood? Z.
A. This substance or body of all the shadows of Jewish ritual is Christ Himself. Why then turn round and forsake the substance for the shadow, as all do who leave a living Redeemer to find satisfaction in rites and ceremonies?
Q. 48. What is the typical meaning of cedar wood? Z.
A. Cedar wood means the highest and greatest thing in nature, and the hyssop the lowest and most despised.
Q. 49. What does “singing with grace” mean in Colossians 3:15? Z.
A. Not merely with melody of voice which man can hear and appreciate, but with the grace of Christ in the heart which God alone can see and love. No singing is beautiful to God that lacks this; while the feeblest song, though with a broken voice, that is the fruit of His love and grace in the heart, is sweet to His ear.
Q. 50. What “ enmity” is spoken of in Ephesians 2:16? Z.
A. The “enmity” is the hatred of Jew to Gentile, which was greater in bitterness and intensity than is generally thought This enmity was the result of holding in a carnal way the law of commandments contained in those ordinances that formed the barrier between them. Exalted by spiritual pride, that fatal vice, they looked down with supreme contempt on those Gentiles who were “ without the law.”
Q. 51. I should be very glad to have more light about 1 Peter 3:4, “the hidden man of the heart,” and the “ incorruptible ornament?” Z.
A. The “hidden man” is here in direct contrast to the “outward man” (or woman). The beauty of the Christian was not to consist in gold, silver, or costly array, which moth can corrupt and thief steal, but in the incorruptible ornament and priceless jewel of a meek and quiet spirit, springing from the new nature which God has implanted Q. 52. How is the seeming evasion in 1 Samuel 16:1, 5, to be understood? (2) When were Israelites first called Jews? W. J. H.
A. Samuel was told to go and sacrifice at Bethlehem, and God would then show him further what to do. On account of Samuel’s want of faith God allowed him to do this without disclosing his ultimate design. It is often the mark of a fool, rather than of a truthful man to utter all one’s mind. The sacrifice was a natural mission for Samuel in the absence of the regular priesthood. (2) In 2 Kings 16:6, the next place is in Chapter 18:26.
Q. 53. What became of the bodies of the saints who rose, Matthew 27:52, 53? H. W.
A. We are not told. Probably they lived on earth. We shall be glad to hear more about them. See also Q. 271. vol. 1, p. 40.
Q. 54. What does Matthew 16:28 mean? H. W.
A. It was fulfilled in eight days when three of those standing there saw in striking figure the Son of Man in His glory in the immediate presence of God the Father whose voice came out of the bright cloud; the heavenly saints being represented by Moses and Elijah, the earthly by the three disciples.
Q. 55. Under what circumstance was 1 Corinthians written? F. E. L. P.
A. The epistle was written towards the close of Paul’s three years’ visit to Ephesus, (Acts 19:10-20:31.) See 1 Corinthians 16:8. The apostle had intended to visit the Corinthians on his way into Macedonia and them on returning to pay them a second visit. The dreadful state of the church prevented this and occasioned a letter instead. The subject of this letter is based, 1St, on information received from some of Chloe’s household (1, 2.) of grave divisions; 2nd, on information he had received of a dreadful case of immorality, and also of great irregularities at the Lord’s supper and elsewhere; and 3rd, this letter was also in answer to many special inquiries addressed to Paul from Corinth as to Christian practice, &c. There was a great deal of philosophy at Corinth (though Athens was its seat); but it was mainly the eastern center of polished immorality and worldly luxury of every description.
Q. 55. Did John the Baptist wholly, or only partly fulfill Malachi 3, 4, or is part of this yet future?
A. Matthew 11:14, says, “ If ye will receive it, this is Elias, which was for to come,” referring to Malachi 4:5,6: as a matter of fact they did not receive it, and hence put off (humanly speaking) the fulfillment of Malachi for 2000 years. Jerusalem did not know the time of her visitation and her house is still left desolate, and Malachi will yet be fulfilled. (Compare Revelation 11:3, 6, &c.) The coming of the Baptist therefore was only a partial fulfillment of this prophecy.
Q. 57. How can we read these verses together, John 6:37-44, and Chapter 5:40?
A. Refer to Q. 15. As has been well said, “It is impossible to reflect closely and not to see that to our human reason moral incapacity seems to disprove moral responsibility. At this issue our reasoning must arrive, and human reason has nothing to reply. When Paul himself had brought the argument to this point he did not argue, but only said, “Nay, but O man! who art thou that repliest against God?” Much time would be saved if we at once accepted the fact that sovereignty and responsibility each pressed home, seem to our finite reasons, darkened by the fall, mutually to exclude each other. It would be well if we did net defer to do that which is required of us, namely, to believe the Scriptures, till we can do what is not required of us, namely, to reconcile sovereignty and responsibility. But against this our pride of intellect revolts, and so makes void half of Scripture. Because we find John 6:37 written, we deprive of all its meaning the tender remonstrance of John 5:40. Yet why should man argue when God has spoken. He has declared both these things; and though difficult in the abstract, they have never presented any practical difficulty to an honest seeker. Every conscience testifies of their truth; every man born again of the Spirit knows he did not, and could not have done it for himself; and every man that continues in sin knows he does it willfully, and of his own ungodly preference: and both these truths will be testified to in heaven and hell to all eternity.” Chapter 6:44 has special reference to the human form Jesus took, which was so lowly that none untaught of the Spirit could recognize in Him the Son of God.
Q. 58. How do we reconcile Romans 8:3. “Whom he did predestinate, them He also called” and Matthew 22:14. “There are many called, but few chosen?”
A. All predestinated are called, and the call is effectual, but the Gospel call is not limited to such, on the contrary it is world-wide on the basis of “Whosoever will” and hence all are responsible for rejecting it. Only those accept the call whose hearts are wrought upon by the Spirit; that is the “chosen” or “predestinated.” The question essentially is the same as Q. 57. The “call” in Matthew is in its widest sense; in Romans it only speaks of those in whom the call is effectual.
Q. 59. What is meant by “delivered unto Satan?” 1 Timothy 1:20. F. E.
A. We believe that it refers to an especial apostolic power. We see a similar action by God in Job’s case and by Paul in 1 Corinthians 5 and we think it goes entirely beyond mere church discipline.
Q. 60. (1) What prophecies are alluded to in 1 Timothy 1:18. (2) Did the apostle (ver. 13) obtain mercy because he sinned ignorantly, or is ver. 16 the cause? F. E.
A. We believe it refers to prophecies by some unknown N. T. prophets which had indicated Timothy’s future position in the church of God. Hence the apostle’s commission was not merely in virtue of his own authority, but according to the prophecies of others. (2) Both were true reasons why Paul obtained mercy, the grace of God was extended to the chief of sinners on account of his ignorance, but not only so, but also that the purpose of God might be fulfilled in showing forth in him, as the chief, (H. V.) all His longsuffering.
Q. 61. Why are children not visited by the sins of their fathers in Deuteronomy 24:18 as in Exodus 20:5? A. N.
A. Deuteronomy refers to being put to death by the word of man, where it would be manifestly unjust to put one to death for the sins of another, however God might see fit in His providence to punish whole generations who tread in their fathers’ steps. The two passages are in no way parallel, Deuteronomy referring to man’s conduct towards his fellow man, and Exodus to God’s dealings with his creatures according to His infinite wisdom and perfect justice.