Bible Queries: 319 - 352

 •  17 min. read  •  grade level: 7
All Queries received before the 10th, will be answered, if possible, in
the 1St of the following month, i.e., in three weeks.
Q. 319. Please explain (1) Ecclesiastes 9:5—3. (2) 2 Peter 1:19. J. B. S.
A. (1) Judged solely by results in this world, the godly and ungodly are very much alike, and one event happens to all. Christianity, however, reveals what is “above the sun,” not “under the sun,” (Ecclesiastes 1:3,9,13, &c.) which is the subject of Ecclesiastes. (2) Revelation reads “ we have the word of prophecy made more sure,” &c., which is better that is to say, the transfiguration confirmed the prophecies that spoke of the glory of the kingdom. Those that watch in the night see by faith in their hearts another light, that of the dawning day and Christ as the morning star. (Revelation 22)
Q. 320. (1) Is not oil a type of the Holy Spirit? (2) Please explain Hosea 12-14 (3) What is the difference between supplications, prayers, and intercessions (1 Timothy 2:1)? J. B. S.
A. (1) Yes. Psalms 45:7: 89:20, &c. (2) Hosea 12 and 13 present the mingled pleadings, warnings, and judgments of Jehovah on Ephraim (Israel) and Chapter 14 presents the final recovery and repentance of the nation in the last days. (3) See Y. B. vol. 2. p. 252, Qu. 138.
Q. 321. Please explain about David’s mighty men in 2 Samuel 23. 1 Chronicles 11 Says that Abishai, brother of Joab, was chief of the three mighty men, but in v. 19, it says, “he attained not unto the first three. E. B.
A. David’s mighty men were divided into two threes and thirty. The first three were Adino. Eleazar, and Shammah; the second three were Abishai, Benaiah, and another. 1 Chronicles 11:21 exactly explains Abishai’s position.
Q. 322. Is “by the laying on of my hands” in 2 Timothy 1:6. a correct translation? What does it mean? E. B.
A. Yes. It refers to a special spiritual gift which Paul as an apostle: had power to confer on Timothy. It is unnecessary, however, to add that apostolic power belonged only to the apostles, who, from their very nature as founders, (Ephesians 2 &c.) had no successors.
Q. 323. Please explain Ephesians 2:10. E. B.
A. The verse shows that we are created by God, for His glory. (It is a wonderful thing when the soul really grasps this.) That we have not even to chose the good works that are to occupy us, for all things are of God, and He has prepared our path before us, and those works for which we are most suited. We trust that many of our readers are found walking in this simple and God-honoring path.
Q. 324. Will you explain the difference between the genealogies in Matthew and Luke? The former traces the line to Nathan, the latter to Solomon. F. E.
A. The genealogy of Matthew appears to be given to show that Joseph was legal successor to the throne of David, consistently with the subject of the gospel, sheaving Jesus to be the King of the Jews. The gospel of Luke, which presents Him as man, gives the strictly natural genealogy, from father to son. To prove this, we find that Jechonias is given by Matthew as the father of Salathiel, which from Jeremiah 22:30, we know to be impossible naturally. Christ could not therefore be naturally descended from Jechonias, but legally He was, for Jechonias having no son, Salathiel (from Nathan) was the next heir, and hence took the son’s place. Luke, proceeding naturally, gives Neri (the natural parent) as the father of Salathiel, and proceeds to follow up the natural genealogy to Nathan. Other minor difficulties exist, if therefore more is required, write again.
Q. 325. In 1 Chronicles 21:12, David chose three years of famine, but in 2 Samuel 24:13 there is seven years of famine. Kindly explain. H. R. S.
A. The Septuagint reads in 2 Samuel 24:13, Three years famine. No doubt the H. V. will remove these and other apparent discrepancies.
Q. 326. Is it Scriptural to speak of the “four evangelists?” E. B.
A. Strictly speaking, an evangelist (as Philip) is one who preaches the Gospel. The term applied to the writers of the gospels is not scriptural, but inasmuch as “gospel” and “evangel” are the same, we can hardly say that the name is misapplied, or that any harm is likely to accrue from its use. The word “saint,” prefixed is more dangerous, leading one to believe that it is a special title, instead of being common to all Christians.
Q. 327. Is the expression in a hymn true “That Thou with us in heaven art one?” E. B. C.
A. We suppose that the expression refers to such a Scripture as 1 Corinthians 12:12, where the union of believers with Christ is so perfect that both together regarded as one person, are called “the Christ.” (lit.)
Q. 328. Are the horns of the altar mentioned in Amos 3:14, symbolic of Christ? If not, what do they point to? G. S. M.
A. Horns in scripture are symbolic of strength. (Psalms 18:2; Luke 1:69, kc.) They were used on the altar for binding the sacrifice co. (Psalms 118:27.) Cutting off the horns means destruction of the power (Psalms 75:10; Jeremiah 48:25; Lamentations 2:3). Here it would be equivalent to throwing down the altar.
Q. 329. Please explain the difference between Matthew 23:9, and Ephesians 6:2. G. C. D.
A. Matthew 23:9 means those that are not naturally your father, as “Father So-and-so.” All these warnings are in a spiritual sense. In no way does this interfere with Ephesians 6:2, any more than Matthew 23:8 clashes with Ephesians 6:5. To confuse spiritual and natural relationships is very dangerous.
Q. 330. Please explain why it was necessary that the spear should be thrust into the side of Christ, seeing He was already dead: was His death: not full payment to God for sin? Why is it said “It is the blood (not the death) that maketh atonement for the soul? M. S.
A. The spear thrust into the side (the heart) of Christ showed to all that His death was real, and moreover drew out those tokens of atonement and purification (blood and water) on which we rest, and by which we are cleansed. The death of Christ was a full atonement for sin, but blood out of the body, apart from it, is a proof of death: (in the body it is the life of it) and hence the blood is everywhere used for the atoning value of the death of Christ; not that blood is different from death, but because it is the proof of it. The blood “making atonement” is a more beautiful thought than the death, because it means the perfect life given up in death. The blood which was the life, now poured forth in death, is that which is so precious in God’s sight. You will observe that when the death is spoken of, it is more in connection with resurrection, presenting the truth of deliverance from sin (Romans 6) rather than atonement for sins. (Romans 3)
Q. 331. What is the meaning of through Jesus (1 Thessalonians 4:14, margin, Revelation Ver.) instead of in Jesus? (2) What is the exact meaning of the word “last” (1 Corinthians 4:9)?
A. We cannot see that “through” makes it any clearer it may be more literal. The Revelation Ver. has “in” in the text. (2) “Last” refers to the games in the amphitheater, the closing spectacle being generally a conflict to death between men, or men and wild beasts.
Q. 332. Please explain (1) Song of Solmon1:8, and its connection with the previous verse. (2) Also, the word “for,” in Luke 7:47. Does not forgiveness produce the love? C. H. V. P.
A. (1) V. 8 is the direct reply to v. 7. The connection appears to be quite clear. Please say what is the difficulty. (2) Forgiveness does produce love when the work precedes the knowledge of the person. Here the order is reversed: the grace of Christ has wrought in the heart of the woman and taken away the natural mistrust of God, and produced full love and trust in the person of the Savior though she was ignorant of His power to forgive sins. To such an one Jesus announces full forgiveness, because of the work of grace in her heart, not that her love was meritorious, but it spewed that she had a changed heart.
Q. 333. Why does it say in 2 Samuel 24:1, the Lord moved David to number Israel, and in 1 Chronicles 21:1, it was Satan. T. V.
A. Chronicles shows plainly that the “he” in Samuel refers to Satan, not God. See also in connection, James 1:13, 14.
Q. 334. Why did the old prophet of Bethel desire to be buried with the man of God whom he had deceived, 1 Kings 13:31? T. V.
A. Because he felt that he was a true servant of God, and he wished to be buried with one whom he could call his brother (ver. 30.)
Q. 335. We are distinctly told no man can pluck us out of the hand of the Good Shepherd, but is it not possible for the sheep to pluck himself out? Does not the passage in John 15 refer to this? C. B.
A. The word used is absolute, and means “no one whatever.” John 10:28, says “shall snatch” and 2), “is able to snatch” (R. V.) the one showing the love, the other the power of God, both for us. God would be worse than an earthly father were He to leave go of our hand because we left go of His. He only holds us the tighter then. John 15 does not refer to eternal life at all, hut to outward profession, the proof of the reality of which is shown by fruit-bearing. There is no fruit-bearing in John 10. It is all God’s sovereign grace.
Q. 336. Who is spoken of under the name of Sodom in Ezekiel 16? Are we to infer that the cities of the plain will be restored, or is the language figurative? E. H.
A. The city of that name. From ver. 55, we plainly see that Samaria and Sodom will both again be prosperous cities, restored of course in grace at the Millennium Q. 337. Was Moses right in breaking the tables of stone? (Exodus 32:19.) Can he be justified for so doing from the Word? T. V.
A. What Moses did was in holy zeal for God’s glory. How could he carry a law already broken into the idolatrous camp? We do not find God in any way found fault with him in this case: we do not see therefore that we can.
Q. 338. Why do we not get a veil in Ezekiel’s temple 41:23)? Why are there doors instead? T. V.
A. The veil was rent at the crucifixion, never to be replaced. The doors were similar to those in Solomon’s temple (1 Kings 6:31, 32) to which the Jews were quite accustomed. It is remarkable that the doors only are described in Kings and in Chronicles, the veil only, which probably hung over them.
Q. 339. (1) What is the meaning of “above that which is written” (1 Corinthians 4:6)? (2) To whom does “him” refer in Galatians 1:6? (3) What is the meaning of “mightiest overcome when thou art judged” (Romans 3:4.) Zurich.
A. (1) Not going beyond the letter of the word, referring here especially to not judging motives. (2) The apostle himself, who probably founded this church (see Acts 21:6) and visited it afterward (Acts 18; 23) before writing this epistle. (3) The R. V. makes this clear. “Mightest prevail when thou comest into judgment.”
Q. 340. (1) What is meant by the “unity of the faith” (Ephesians 4:13), and when do we come to it? (2) Does “the Savior of the body,” Ephesians 5:23, refer to Philippians 3:20,21?
Zurich.
A. (1) The R. V. reads “unto the unity of the faith,” and the expression probably means the one object of faith, Christ. This takes place when we see Him. (2) We think that “the body” here means our literal body, and may thus be connected with Philippians 3
Q. 341. (1) What trump goes before the last (1 Corinthians 15:52)? (2) In Genesis 37:28, Joseph was sold for twenty pieces of silver, in Matthew 26:15, our Lord was sold for thirty; please say if there is any significance in the amounts.
A. (1) The last trump does not in this case refer to previous trumpets, hut is called “the last,” because it is a military figure taken from the last signal to set out on a march (after previous signals had been given to prepare, &c.) (2) The fact has often been noticed. We do not know what is to be learned from the amounts, but shall be glad to learn. It is as interesting as it is sad to notice that the history of the children of Israel begins with selling Joseph for twenty pieces of silver, and closes with selling Jesus for thirty.
Q. 342. (1) Please explain the expression “in the person of Christ” (2 Corinthians 2 so). (2) Does “he is Christ’s” (2 Corinthians 10:7) mean that he belongs to Christ as truly saved? (3) What is the meaning of “the power of our Lord Jesus Christ” (1 Corinthians 5:4)? Zurich.
A. B. V. reads “in the presence of Christ,” meaning as before Chi from our version we would understand as “ in the name of Christ.” (2) Yes. (2) In John 20:23, there is a power or authority given to those gathered around the person of Christ (as an assembly) to retain sins. This power was exercised in this case in putting out this wicked man.
Q. 343. What does the word “temple of God” mean in 2 Thessalonians 2:4, and “holy place” Matthew 24:15? Will the worship of the last Chapter of Zechariah be acceptable to God, and when will it take place? R. S.
A. It means the literal temple in Jerusalem, and refers to the time when Antichrist will set up the image of the beast in the holy place, that is, within the temple (Matthew 24) in the beginning of the last half of Daniel’s last week (Daniel 9) (2) Certainly. It will take place during the Millennium.
Q. 344. In reference to Q. 273, can our Lord in His character as glorified man, still suffer grief? S. B.
A. We do not believe that our Lord now suffers as “a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief,” but we do believe that He feels for the sorrows and is grieved at the failures of His people as much as ever; being the same Jehovah that had so often to bear with the hardness and unbelief of His people of old. Beyond this, however, we have a High Priest who is touched, even now, with the feeling of our infirmities. In one sense, therefore, grief is confined to earth, in another, as we see from Genesis 6:6, &c., it is not.
Q. 345. Please explain the words “forever,” “everlasting,” in such passages as Isaiah 34:10, where they seem to have a limited meaning. I have read that these words are often used in this way in the Old Testament, but would not such an interpretation take away from the value of the word elsewhere; because, if limited in one place, why not in another? C. H. v. P.
A. If the word is to be restricted, it must be by Scripture. In the cases you quote and refer to, the passage is clearly limited by the duration of that of which it speaks, and it is plain if Scripture elsewhere shows that the very earth itself will pass away, that which is on it must pass away too. But unless Scripture thus necessarily limits the word, its force continues. Hence the word “forever” is not limited in itself; but may be applied to that which Scripture elsewhere shows to be limited in duration. Such, however, is not the case with God or Satan, or heaven or hell, or the blessed or the lost, or aught connected with things spiritual or eternal, and hence such an argument falls to the ground, if sought to be used in favor of the non-eternity of punishment.
Q. 346. (1) Please explain Matthew 25:8. To whom do the foolish virgins refer? and (2) what is meant by their going to buy? J. W. L.
A. (1) Mere professors. (2) Their seeking to get the real thing (life in their souls by the Spirit) when it was too late. See Y. B. vol. 1. p. 131.
Q. 347. What is meant by the righteous judgment of God, 2 Thessalonians 1:5? M. A. K.
A. The coming judgment of God at Christ’s return to the earth. The Thessalonians thought the “day of the Lord” had come. The apostle here shows them that the sufferings they endured were not tribulation from Him, but were a token of His coming righteous judgment, which would deliver them, and punish their enemies. If God’s saints suffer now, it is a token that God’s righteous judgments are being earned by others.
Q. 348. Would you please explain 1 Corinthians 11:3-15? (1) Ought a woman always to have some article of clothing on her head? (2) Does praying include giving of thanks at meals? (3) What does prophesying mean? (4) Please explain James 4:11. M. S.
A. (1) A woman ought to be covered in public assemblies, of which the Chapter speaks. (2) Not in this passage at all, which speaks of the custom in the assemblies of God (ver. 16). (3) Speaking to the conscience (see 1 Corinthians 14:24, 25). (4) A brother (or neighbor under the law) had a place of value in the eyes of God and of His law, and he who despised this, despised God’s law, for his rights and his position we e clearly defined by it.
Q. 349. Please explain Zechariah 1:8.
A. Horses are a symbol of government, and here they refer to the Gentile empires that were ruling when Zechariah wrote, as foretold by Daniel in the interpretation of Nebuchadnezzar’s dream. The fourth empire (Roman) though not existing now, will be revived after the Lord’s next return for His people, and it is this period the prophecy looks forward to, though also true at the very time the prophet wrote.
Q. 350. (1) Who can “the porter” mean in John 10:3? (2) Can one know the meaning of “the upper and the nether springs” in Judges 1:15? A. G. H.
A. (1) The Holy Ghost. (2) Special spiritual blessings in the heaven—lies in Christ, not earthly blessings.
Q. 351. Please explain the difference in the apostles’ names in Luke 6:16, from Matthew 10 or Mark 3. W. J.
A. See the Notes on the Revised Version this month. The only difference in the lists is that Simon the Zealot (Zelotes) is called the Cananean in Matthew and Mark (R. V.) in this there is no contradiction; and also that Judas the brother of James (the less, son of Alpheus or Clopas, the husband of Mary, sister of the virgin) is called in Matthew, Lebbaeus, surnamed Thaddeus, and in Mark, Thaddeus. This latter difficulty can only be explained on the assumption that Thaddeus and Judas are only different names for the same person. This cannot be proved, and is only an assumption. There is no reason however why it may not be the right solution.
Q. 352. (1) What is the difference between Psalms, Hymns, and Spiritual Songs in Ephesians 5:19, and Colossians 3:16. (2) What is meant by “having put on the new man?” G. B.
A. (1) “Psalms” mean undoubtedly the psalms of David; “hymns” are what we understand by the word, metrical compositions (generally rhyming as well) suitable for Christian worship; while “songs” or odes (used here and in Revelation only) are more joyful and freer in style, probably metrical, but not necessarily rhyming. We think the words used convey the correct meaning in a general way. (2) Colossians 3:10 is positional, in Christ, and on this are based the practical exhortations of ver. 12.