Bible Queries: Vol. 2, 272-302

 •  17 min. read  •  grade level: 7
Q. 272. Please explain the difference between " heave " and "wave," in Ex. 29:27, and elsewhere. F. E. L. P.
A. They are two distinct words in the Heb. The one means to lift or raise, the other to scatter or shake.
Q. 273. What is the difference between " symbol" and " type "? In the paper on animals, in the same number, they seem used interchangeably. A. P. C.
A. We think the difference can be more easily felt than defined, and we do not think we could in a short space distinguish them satisfactorily. Many writers use the words interchangeably and in some dictionaries each is used as explanatory of the other. Still we think there are instances where " symbol " would seem appropriate, but in which we should shrink from using " type" without the direct warrant of Scripture. Type seems to mean an express and direct emblem, symbol is a wider and more general word.
Q. 274. Kindly say if Eccl. 7:1 refers to the believer's death only. If not, what does it mean?
A. It certainly refers to the death of a good man. At his birth he has a life of trouble before him, but at his death, all this is over, but a good name (better than precious ointment) remains. Always remember that the subject of Ecclesiastes is confined to what is "under the sun." (1:3, 14).
Q. 275. (1) What is the interpretation of 1 Cor. 11:27? (2) also of Heb. 12:27,28? w. J. H.
A. (1) It is not " whoever is unworthy to eat and drink," but whoever " eats and drinks unworthily." It is not an adjective referring to the person (which we get in 1 Cor. 6:2), but an adverb referring to the manner of eating and drinking (which is only used here and verse 29). In Corinth (20-22), it was grossly irregular. Taking the bread and wine without any sense of that which they set forth, would be another way of eating and drinking unworthily. The question is not of our worthiness, but of eating and drinking in a becoming way and spirit. (2) It is a solemn exhortation to a godly and consistent walk in view of our great privilege, and of God's great power and holiness, as will be shown in the coming judgments.
Q. 276. Who was Cain's wife? Gen. 4:17. w. J. H.
A. We are not told. Scripture plainly teaches the descent of all from a single couple. Hence Cain's wife must necessarily be one of the unnamed daughters of Eve. No doubt following the analogy of other Scriptures, only a brief glimpse of her history is given, and from Gen. 5:4 we learn that she had several more children than the three named. Let us admire and respect the silence of Scripture, where a plain statement might have led to evil in other days.
Q. 277. Because women were allowed to prophesy (1 Cor. 11:5; Acts 2:17) is that any warrant (now that is past) for their public teaching and speaking now? W. J. H.
A. Prophesying in the N. T. saints includes speaking to the conscience (1 Cor. 14:24,25), and we could not say in this sense it has wholly ceased. Other Scriptures limit the sphere in which women may exercise this and other gifts they may possess. (See 1 Cor. 14:34, and 1 Tim. 2:12).
Q. 278. (1) In 1 Tim. 2:9, what are women to do in "like manner " and when? (2) In 1 Cor. 11:5, where and when are women to pray with their heads covered? s. T.
A. (1) All that follows in the verse and everywhere "in like manner" as men in ver. 8. (2) See B. S. vol. 1, p. 68, Q. 313, also p. 94, Q. 348.
Q. 279. Did the high priest ever wear the garments of glory and beauty? D. T. C.
A. For eight days at his consecration Lev. 8:33,36, but not all of them subsequently in the holy of holies (Lev. 16:4). The robes for glory and beauty (Ex. 28:2,40) consisted of seven parts, four colored and three white; the breastplate, ephod, robe and broidered girdle of different colors; the broidered coat, the miter, and linen girdle of pure white. After Lev. 10 only the last three of the garments of glory and beauty were to be worn in the holiest. It is however, possible that all might have been worn on other occasions of priestly ministry.
Q. 280. Will you kindly define the meaning of the word " regeneration"? What is the washing of regeneration, in Titus 3:5? s. B.
A. It is only used here and in Matt. 19:28. It means the new creation in Christ. In Matt. it refers to the creation in Christ or new beginning of creation in the millennium, when all the effects of sin are done away. Here it means the spiritual new creation in Christ, which has practically purified us by giving a new place when the old is done away, and all is become new. It goes beyond the new birth in John 3
Q. 281. In 1 Kings 12:1, why did Rehoboam go to Shechem to be made king? H. S.
A. Its position was very central. It was the capital of the powerful tribe of Ephraim, who were the king's chief opponents. It would therefore be a conciliatory act on his part.
Q. 282. Kings 16:18 speaks of the "covert of the Sabbath." What is meant by this? H. S.
A. It is supposed to be either a sort of shelter or canopy erected for the people on the Sabbath, when the crowd was too great for the porch to contain them, or a seat covered with a canopy placed on an elevation, for the king and his court, when they attended public worship.
Q. 283. Sam. 5:17, says David went down to the " hold," and the Philistines " spread themselves in the valley of Rephaim." What is the "hold" here, and is the valley of Rephaim the same as the valley of that name near Jerusalem? H. S.
A. We cannot say what " the hold " is here; the words are omitted in 1 Chron. 14:8. The broad plain between Jerusalem and Bethlehem which is called by this name by Josephus, answers very well for the spot in all respects but one. The Hebrew word seems to point rather to an enclosed valley than a plain. On the whole, however, it appears most probable that this was the place alluded to in the passage.
Q. 284. With reference to 2 Kings 24:8-12 and 2 Chron. 36:9-10, was Jehoiachin 8 or 18, and did he surrender in the 1St or 8th year of his reign? M. B. H.
A. The reading in 2 Chron. 36:9 appear preferable, being supported by the historical record in 1 Esdras i. 43, and thus agreeing in the date of Jehoiachin's birth with Matt. 1:11. He was king of Judah for three months. The 8th year refers to the date of Nebuchadnezzar's reign.
Q. 285. (1) Was Mal. 4:5 fulfilled in the coming of John the Baptist? (2) What Scriptures prove that the Jews will be restored to Palestine? and will this be before Christ's return for His saints? M. B. H.
A. (1) In part according to Matt. 11:14, but inasmuch as they did not receive it, there will be a further fulfillment in Rev. 11:3, just before the Millennium. (2) Isa. 4, 6, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 29, 32, 34, 35, 54, 62, 65, 66, Jer. 32, 33, Ezek. 20, 34, 36, Zech. 13, and many other chapters. This restoration may begin before the church is taken away to heaven, but Israel will not be grafted into their own olive tree (Rom. 11) until the Gentiles are cut off, and God ceases to deal with them in blessing as now. This will evidently be when the church is gone and the present day of grace closed.
Q. 286. What is the meaning of being " baptized for the dead" 1 Cor. 15:29? E. J. B.
A. See B. S., January 1882, p.16, Q. 25.
Q. 287. Conder's " Handbook to the Bible " says, the holy anointing oil was only made once, as the penalty of " Keritoth" was denounced against the repetition of the manufacture of it. Is this statement correct? Was not the denunciation against the profane use, rather than against the actual repetition of its making for sacred use? H. S.
A. Ex. 30:32,3, certainly seems to bear out what you say. It is probable that Conder only repeats the Rabbinical tradition in stating it was only made once, founding this un that rigid interpretation of the letter of ver. 32 apart from the spirit, which is the root of so many of their blunders, They say it lasted 900 years, till the captivity. It appears however from 1 Chron. 9:30, that more was subsequently made. Saul, David, Solomon, Jehu, Joash were anointed with it.
Q. 288. Will you kindly explain John 12:47,48? Who is meant by the " one" in ver. 48, as in the previous verse the Lord says " I judge him not? " F. H.
A. "I judge him not" means that the Lord did not then execute judgment on those who believed not. The "one " refers to the gracious word He then spoke, which, when the day of judgment came, should rise up in judgment against all who heard them only to reject; even as now.
Q. 289. Many make use of Zech. 1:12,13 to support the doctrine of the " Invocation of Saints." Please spew the difference between angels and saints. C. H. F.
A. The passage refers to " angels," not " saints". The prevalent vague idea that we are to become "angels" some day finds no shred of support in Scripture. Angels existed before ever a "saint" was heard of. They too are spirits; we shall have bodies. They are not redeemed by the blood of Christ, for the fallen ones are never restored. Indeed there is no parallel between the two classes.
Q. 290. Is the " last trump" of 1 Cor. 15:52 synchronous with Rev. 11:15, viz., the seventh trumpet? A. R. C.
A. No. The trump in 1 Cor. 15 is a signal for the rapture of the saints, and the first resurrection; the seventh trumpet in Rev. is subsequent to this, and has no reference to the same event. See also B. S. vol. i. p. 92, Q. 341.
Q. 291. Is it true that believers ought not to pray day by day for the pardon of their sins? Did not our Lord Himself command us to do this in the prayer He taught His disciples, and is it not also the teaching of that verse " He that is bathed needeth not save to wash his feet, but is clean every whit "? I know another verse speaks of our being " clean through the word" and yet another of the washing of water with the word. But yet, day by day, especially at the close of the day, or after any fall which has greatly grieved me, I go to the cross of Christ, and cannot really help confessing, and asking for fresh pardon. Surely this is not wrong, nor unscriptural. I should be very thankful for some explanation of the subject.
A. R. C.
A. We must distinguish between being cleansed once for all before God, by the blood of Christ according to Heb. 10:2,22 etc., and the more common use of the word cleansing, which is by water, i.e., through the word (See John 15:3; Eph. y. 26, etc.) This cleansing, however, is twofold, which you have rightly distinguished. The bathing or complete cleansing refers to the new birth by water and the Spirit (the word of God applied by the Holy Spirit's power). The washing of the feet refers to the constant practical cleansing needed as to our daily ways, not as affecting our standing before God, but as affecting our communion with our Father. The word to a believer as to the sin he commits after conversion is plain in 1 John 1:9. We are to confess our sins daily, heartily honestly, and fully, and we receive there and then our Father's forgiveness. Once we really judge ourselves, there is no need to implore forgiveness, for it is assured us on the authority of this verse. Still none could find fault with the practice you describe: provided that you clearly understand that no sin alters your standing which is eternal, resting on the infinite and unchangeable value of the blood of Christ, in whom indeed alone you stand, but that it does affect your state, and that you get no communion, no forgiveness, until it is fully confessed.
Q. 292. What is being "fallen from grace." Gal. 5:4? S. B.
A. Seeking to be justified by the works of the law, rather than being justified by the work of Christ, thus giving up grace for legality. It was this that the Galatians were in such danger of doing.
Q. 293. How long was Noah building the Ark? From Gen. 5:32 and 7:11, it would appear 100, but from Gen. 6:3, 120 years. A. H. B.
A. Probably a very short time. The following considerations tend to show this. Verse 3 was not said to Noah. Verse 14, ordering the construction of the ark, was probably a very short time before the flood (see verse 13 "is come before me "). Verse 18 shows that Noah's three sons were not only born, but married. Now the eldest was only born a hundred years before the flood. If therefore we allow time for the youngest to get married, it brings us close to the date of the deluge. Besides this, two whom we regard as in the line of godly men, lived, the one (Lamech) to within 5 years of the flood, the other (Methuselah) to the very year of the flood. And it is hardly likely that in their lifetime Noah was the only righteous man (7:1.), which is the ground of vi. 18. Besides this, there is absolutely no scripture to favor the thought that the ark was a long time in being built.
Q. 294. Will all sins committed by God's children and unconfessed be brought to light at the judgment-seat, where work and walk will be tried? with especial reference to 2 Cor. 5:10; 1 Cor. 4:5; 1 John 1:9, also Rom. 14:12., Luke 12:2., Matt. 12:36, Psa. 90:8, and Rom. 2:6. H. C.
A. Certainly. Does it not say so in 1 Cor. 4:5; Rom. 14:11; Luke 12:2; Rom. 2:6. Matt. 12:36, rather applies to unbelievers. Refer also to B. S., vol. 1, p. 42, Q. 284, p. 67, Q. 311, Q. 312, which may perhaps throw some light on the subject.
Q. 295. Please explain John 13:10. s.
A. The R. V. reads correctly, " He that is bathed needeth not save to wash his feet, but is clean every whit: and ye are clean, but not all." The meaning is, he that is washed all over, or bathed with the washing of regeneration by the Word and Spirit at the new birth, does not require a new nature again when he falls; but only requires the defilement, his feet (that part of him that touches the world) to be washed; that is the application of the word to his conscience, leading to true confession and restoration (1 John 1:9,) See Q. 291 above.
Q. 296. Please explain Num. 31:40. For what purpose were these 32 Persons, who were "the Lord's tribute" used? F. J.
A. Probably as servants to the Levites, or the priests. See verses 18-30.
Q. 297. Please explain (1) Col. 1:20; (2) Eph. 1:10. F.J.
A. (1) This passage stands in remarkable and striking cent] fist to Phil. 2:10. There when it is a question of being compelled to bow. three order of things are included, things celestial, terrestrial, and infernal. Here where it is a question of reconciliation, and making peace by the blood the things infernal, are most pointedly omitted, and the expression " all things " is expressly limited to things celestial and terrestial. The distinction is all important. What the reconciliation of earthly things means we know, that of heavenly things is more mysterious. In some way we know that Satan has access to the heavenlies, and there must be defilement where his presence is. Heb. 9:23, refers to the same subject. It is sufficient for us to know that there will be nothing in heaven or earth left that is not reconciled to God by the blood of Christ. (2) In this passage also, "all things" is again limited to things celestial and terrestrial. Here Christ is not the reconciler, but the head and center of all, even as He will be in the Millennial reign, when this passage will be fulfilled.
Q. 298. Please explain (1) Heb. 6:4; (2) 1 Cor. 15:31. T. H.
A. (1) Refer to p. 18, Q. 32, also p. 199, Q. 216. (2) The apostle's life of constant danger and trial was a daily death. We should be glad to know the force of the first part of the verse. " I protest by your rejoicing which I have in Christ Jesus our Lord."
Q. 299. Briefly explain Matt. 13:10, 11. T. H.
A. Christ so clothed His teachings in parabolic language, that only those who had ears to hear, heard; that is to say, only those who would do His will knew of the doctrine. John 7:17.
Q. 300. Please explain Matt. 19:23. T. H.
A. This agrees with 1 Cor. 1:26. The " hardness " refers to the immense snare that wealth and position are, and the hindrances they oppose to the simple reception of the gospel.
Q. 301. Should the last word in Isa. 50:4, be " learned " or "learner"? See Q. 139. E. B.
A. The word is, properly an adjective, in the plural form. It is translated disciples, in Isa. 8:16. The verses are thus rendered by Benisch, whose version is authorized among the Jews:-" The Lord eternal hath given me a tongue for disciples, that I should know how to speak a word in season to him that is weary: he wakeneth morning by morning; he wakeneth mine ear to hear as the disciples." And Henderson, in his blank verse translation of the Book of Isaiah, gives it as follows: " The Lord Jehovah hath given me the tongue of those that are taught, That I may know how to succor the weary with a word; He wakeneth me e very morning, he wakeneth my ear, That I may listen like those who are taught."
Q. 302. Referring to B. S. vol i., p. 41, Q. 277, please explain more fully the difference in significance between LORD, and Lord. E. S. V.
A. Dr. Angus states in his " Handbook," " LORD, in capitals, is the translation of Jehovah, and Lord, in small letters of another word. See Psalm ex., 1. This distinction is important."
That other word is Adonai; both this and Jehovah are considered to refer to the Second Person in the Trinity: and it is interesting to trace the word in this connection through the Old Testament.
Bishop Wordsworth, thus writes on the same subject: " The name JEHOVAH is a word of higher import (than Elohim); it is derived from the old verb hared?, to be, and signifies self-existence, (see Hos. 12:5.) Its proper meaning seems to be " He is," (see Gesenius, p. 337). The word JEHOVAH proclaims I AM THAT I AM. It was rarely uttered by the Jews, on account of their reverence and awe for the Divine Being, the Everlasting... but in its stead, they uttered the word Adonai, where the word 'Jehovah occurs in the Bible (except when it precedes Adonai); and since this word Adonai signifies or Runes Lord (and is rendered by Kurios in the Septuagint or Greek Version), therefore in our English Bibles the name Jehovah is represented by LORD.. The great antiquity of the word Jehovah is evident from its etymology. The word is derived from havah, to be, which was already antiquated when the Pentateuch was composed, and had been almost supplanted by hayah.