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Is the Law Finally Done Away With? (#163305)
Is the Law Finally Done Away With?
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From:
Questions and Answers on Scripture: From the Bible Treasury
• 3 min. read • grade level: 10
Question:
Is
the law finally abrogated? Is it correct to say there is no further resumption? Turning to the notes on
Heb. 7:18, 19; 8:7, 8, 13
18
For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof.
19
For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God. (Hebrews 7:18‑19)
7
For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.
8
For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: (Hebrews 8:7‑8)
13
In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away. (Hebrews 8:13)
, I observe you distinctly affirm on viii. 13, “The cross annulled it, and Jerusalem was its grave.” Do you mean the whole law (ritual and moral) of Exodus, Leviticus, and Numbers, as also of the Psalms? If so, how does this acquiesce with
Eccl. 3:14
14
I know that, whatsoever God doeth, it shall be for ever: nothing can be put to it, nor any thing taken from it: and God doeth it, that men should fear before him. (Ecclesiastes 3:14)
, “Whatsoever God doeth, it shall be forever?” For the law was written by God (
Ex. 24:12; 31:18
12
And the Lord said unto Moses, Come up to me into the mount, and be there: and I will give thee tables of stone, and a law, and commandments which I have written; that thou mayest teach them. (Exodus 24:12)
18
And he gave unto Moses, when he had made an end of communing with him upon mount Sinai, two tables of testimony, tables of stone, written with the finger of God. (Exodus 31:18)
). It might be said, God has the prerogative of so doing, being sovereign. But does this harmonize with His validly declared authority? If the whole law is finally abrogated, what will be the millennial rule? The Psalms, it appears, have not yet received their adequate fulfillment, nor the Prophets either. Thus Ezekiel declares for a modified ritual with an earthly priesthood and a suited temple in the future. Zechariah too informs us of the resumption, especially of the Feast of Tabernacles, which had been laid down in
Lev. 23
18
And ye shall offer with the bread seven lambs without blemish of the first year, and one young bullock, and two rams: they shall be for a burnt offering unto the Lord, with their meat offering, and their drink offerings, even an offering made by fire, of sweet savor unto the Lord. (Leviticus 23:18)
Isaiah is generally clear that the law will be observed in that day, not only by the people of God in the land, but by the isles waiting for it, and all nations flocking up to the mountain of Jehovah’s house in honor of it (chaps 2, and 42. Sm.).
On the other hand Jeremiah clearly speaks of a new covenant made with both houses of Israel in pointed contrast with the old Mosaic one (chap. 31:32). This I find so conflicting that I fail to understand how all agrees, yet I am sure that all is divinely true notwithstanding. And thus I fail to put intelligently together the Lord’s priesthood, heavenly and according to the order of Melchizedek, with the sons of Zadok of Aaron’s house who are to exercise their earthly functions that day.
Ezek. 40:46; 44:15
46
And the chamber whose prospect is toward the north is for the priests, the keepers of the charge of the altar: these are the sons of Zadok among the sons of Levi, which come near to the Lord to minister unto him. (Ezekiel 40:46)
15
But the priests the Levites, the sons of Zadok, that kept the charge of my sanctuary when the children of Israel went astray from me, they shall come near to me to minister unto me, and they shall stand before me to offer unto me the fat and the blood, saith the Lord God: (Ezekiel 44:15)
. If I regard the whole law as abrogated, what do these passages teach? If I hold it to be resumed as there and other scriptures imply, how am I to understand
Jer. 31
15
Thus saith the Lord; A voice was heard in Ramah, lamentation, and bitter weeping; Rahel weeping for her children refused to be comforted for her children, because they were not. (Jeremiah 31:15)
and
Heb. 7
15
And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest, (Hebrews 7:15)
, 8.? Still I believe all those scriptures and await explanation. W. E.
Answer:
It
greatly helps to see, first, that the heavenly state of things which Christ on high has set up and into which the Christian is introduced, (already in faith, by-and-by in person), calls for that immense and total change which the apostle announces in
Heb. 7:12-19
12
For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.
13
For he of whom these things are spoken pertaineth to another tribe, of which no man gave attendance at the altar.
14
For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
15
And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
16
Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life.
17
For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
18
For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof.
19
For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God. (Hebrews 7:12‑19)
; secondly, that even for the earth and Israel in the millennial day the presence of the Messiah and the establishment of the new covenant (not as now with us in spirit only) with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah in all its literal force will bring in such a blessed revolution that the prophet justly contrasts it with the Mosaic condition. It will be
Jehovah
undertaking and thus sure blessing, instead of a test to prove man’s weakness and ungodliness. But now, although we died to law even had we been of Benjamin or Judah in dying with Christ, we are entitled to use the law for the conviction of the ungodly who own its authority, as we read in
1 Tim. 1:8-10
8
But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;
9
Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
10
For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine; (1 Timothy 1:8‑10)
.
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