Q. 1. What authorities have ἔξοδον and δόξαν in Luke 9:31 respectively? Which is to be preferred?
2. Which is more exact, in Heb. 1:8, " Therefore God, [even] thy God," &e.; or, " Therefore, 0 God, thy God," &c.? And why? C.
A. 1. Only a few cursive manuscripts give δόξαν, evidently through δόξαν just before and δόξαν shortly after. Lachmann and Tischendorf do not so much as notice it as a various reading; but Griesbach and Scholz enumerate the juniors that so read, though of course following ἔξοδον. with all the best and most ancient authorities. Matthaei conjectures that this other may have crept in from Chrysostom.
2. As far as grammar is concerned, I think there need be no question that both the Hebrew and the Greek are capable of either construction. Compare Psa. 50:7; 67:7 for the nominative; and Psa. 43:4 for the vocative, as noticed by another. In verse 8, ὁ Θεὸς is unquestionably used in a vocative sense; but this is no way necessary here. The context must decide; and to my mind the anointing would not be congruous with the vocative force in verse 9, so that I incline to the Authorized Version.