Scripture Query and Answer: Grace for Grace?

John 1:16  •  1 min. read  •  grade level: 8
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Q. Jer. 31:22. an inquirer asks what is the real meaning. Is there any ground to apply it, with some Jews and many Christians, to the incarnation?
A. I do not see either analogy in other occurrences of the phrase, or anything in the expression itself, or scope of the context, to give such a turn to the passage. The point is the marvelous change God will effect in the virgin daughters of Israel after all her backslidings and when reduced to the lowest ebb of weakness. A woman shall compass a man—a male or man of might. It is a most emphatic figure to set forth the strength which shall be made perfect in weakness as regards the Jews in the latter day. The ancient versions give little help, especially the Septuagint and Arabic, which are singularly far from any just sense. The Syriac and Vulgate agree with the Authorized Version, which is quite correct. It is a question of interpretation, not of the rendering.
W.J.E.