Question: Why should it be “all the house of Israel” in Acts 2:36, as there is no article in the Greek? Does not πᾶς οἷκος mean “every house”?
ENQUIRER.
Answer: Without “of Israel” connected it would be “every house”; but with it the case is altered. “House of Israel” is in thought a compound term and is sufficiently defined without the article, like “all Jerusalem” which dispenses with it. So it is with “building” in Eph. 2:21, a composite whole in sense, which makes “every” improper and false. The Revisers seem to have been quite astray in all this, though right of course in Eph. 3:15, as “family” has no such reason to plead. “Each several building” is gravely false, at issue with the context even, as with all scripture, which insists on unity.