Correspondence.

1 Corinthians 15:22; Romans 8:11; Psalm 22:20; John 1:16; Luke 22:36,38 Matthew 26:52; 1 Corinthians 14:40; 1 Corinthians 3:17; 1 John 4:20; Matthew 8:11
 
W.T.— Please explain “For as in Adam all die” (1 Cor. 15:2222For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. (1 Corinthians 15:22)). The apostle is sheaving in the context that mankind is divided into two families—Adam being the head of one, and Christ of the other. And as Adam brought in death for all his family, so Christ brought in resurrection from among the dead for those who are His. Hence we have this contrast stated, “For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.” What is the meaning of 1 John 2:2828And now, little children, abide in him; that, when he shall appear, we may have confidence, and not be ashamed before him at his coming. (1 John 2:28)? The little children (meaning, in this verse, the whole family of God) are exhorted to abide in Christ. The reason given is that at His appearing or public manifestation with His saints (Col. 3:44When Christ, who is our life, shall appear, then shall ye also appear with him in glory. (Colossians 3:4)) “We” (that is, the apostles) “may have confidence and not be ashamed before him at his coming.” Thus the apostle was anxious that the saints who were the fruits of his labor might continue in the ways of godliness, love, and truth, so that he might have no reason to be ashamed of his own work in the day of Christ. He was the workman; they his work; he wished they might then be his “glory and joy” (1 Thess. 2:19, 2019For what is our hope, or joy, or crown of rejoicing? Are not even ye in the presence of our Lord Jesus Christ at his coming? 20For ye are our glory and joy. (1 Thessalonians 2:19‑20)) rather than his shame.
M.N.— Please explain the difference between “raised up Jesus” and “raised up Christ” (Rom. 8:1111But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you. (Romans 8:11)). The difference appears to be that in the former part the Lord’s own resurrection as a Man is referred to, “Jesus” being His personal name (Matt. 1:2121And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. (Matthew 1:21)), while in the latter part His resurrection is looked at as virtually embracing our own, “Christ” or “Christ Jesus” being the official title used of the Lord when our association with Him is named (See Eph. 1 and the epistles generally). “In Jesus” is an unscriptural expression, but “in Christ” is a term used in regard of every believer. “But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies. Compare the phrase “dead in Christ” (1 Thess. 4:1616For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: (1 Thessalonians 4:16)).
T.A.— Who or what does Christ allude to in Psalms 22:2020Deliver my soul from the sword; my darling from the power of the dog. (Psalm 22:20) as “my darling”? It is difficult to speak positively; but the expression seems a figurative refence to His life which He laid down. Some, however, from comparison of Psalms 35:17,17Lord, how long wilt thou look on? rescue my soul from their destructions, my darling from the lions. (Psalm 35:17) where a similar expression occurs, see a reference in it to the faithful Jewish remnant with whom Christ identifies Himself. We shall be glad of further tight on this passage. Is there any reference in John 1:5151And he saith unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Hereafter ye shall see heaven open, and the angels of God ascending and descending upon the Son of man. (John 1:51) to Matthew 4:1111Then the devil leaveth him, and, behold, angels came and ministered unto him. (Matthew 4:11)? We hardly think there is any connection. The angelic ministry to the Lord after His temptation in the wilderness was of the nature of personal attendance upon Him during the days of His flesh (Matt. 4:1111Then the devil leaveth him, and, behold, angels came and ministered unto him. (Matthew 4:11); Luke 22:4343And there appeared an angel unto him from heaven, strengthening him. (Luke 22:43)). But in John 1:55And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not. (John 1:5)1 The angels are witnesses given to a reverential world of the glory of the Son of man, fulfilled particularly of course in the millennium. The angels will then be seen attending the Son of man. Not only earth below but heaven above will serve the Son of man. Is He not worthy? “When he bringeth in the first-begotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him” (Heb. 1:66And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him. (Hebrews 1:6)). That sight will be the “greater thing” of which the Lord spake to Nathanael.
J.D.— Kindly explain the expression “grace for grace” (John 1:1616And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace. (John 1:16)). Is there adequate ground for the translation “grace upon grace”? The sense appears to be that of grace succeeding grace being given to us, as upon the sea-coast we might speak of the sea coming in rapidly— “wave upon wave.” Understood thus, it is a beautiful expression of the interminable succession of superabundant supplies of grace which is every believer’s portion. “Of his fullness have all we received, and grace upon grace.” The accuracy of this translation can only be, judged by those who are familiar with the Greek tongue. The phrase in itself is certainly a peculiar one, but similar constructions having this superlative sense occur in secular authors who wrote in the same language. There is therefore nothing arbitrary in the rendering. If required, a fuller communication on this point will be made privately to the querist.
W.R.K.— Are all who are chastened exercised by the chastening, or can one be chastened without being exercised? If “exercised” means (as it surely does) feeling we deserve the chastisement and determining to amend our ways, surely we are sometimes chastened when we see no reason for it, as a boy is slow to admit that he deserves his flogging. The passage is this: “Now no chastening for the present seemeth to be joyous but grievous; nevertheless afterward it yieldeth the peaceable fruit of righteousness unto them which are exercised thereby” (Heb. 12:1111Now no chastening for the present seemeth to be joyous, but grievous: nevertheless afterward it yieldeth the peaceable fruit of righteousness unto them which are exercised thereby. (Hebrews 12:11)). Chastening is the action of God our Father in bringing us into some circumstances of sorrow in order to correct some fault in us, or to remove some blemish in our ways. It is, in fact, the pruning of the branches of the Vine by the Husbandman that more fruit may be borne. His object is that we may become partakers of His holiness (ver. 10). Our part is to be duly “exercised thereby”— to inquire earnestly what folly in our hearts is the cause of this correcting sorrow. Paul was “exercised” as to his “thorn in the flesh” (2 Cor. 12), for he besought the Lord thrice for its removal. But he learned (1) that he was liable to be “exalted above measure,” and (2) the sufficiency of Christ’s grace. These were “peaceable fruits.” Are the “fruits” the general result of a course of chastening, or should we expect a present blessing from each chastening? The degree of chastening would depend upon the obstinacy of the child, or the gravity of the fault. If the chastening is despised (see verse 5) we may expect a “course,” but the God of love will not chasten when the object of His chastisement is accomplished in us. We are not sure whether this will meet your difficulty or not.
M.W.— Please explain the Lord’s words as to buying a sword (Luke 22:36, 3836Then said he unto them, But now, he that hath a purse, let him take it, and likewise his scrip: and he that hath no sword, let him sell his garment, and buy one. (Luke 22:36)
38And they said, Lord, behold, here are two swords. And he said unto them, It is enough. (Luke 22:38) and Matt. 26:5252Then said Jesus unto him, Put up again thy sword into his place: for all they that take the sword shall perish with the sword. (Matthew 26:52)). The Lord was speaking figuratively of the increased difficulties that were before them when He should have departed to the Father. The verse you refer to in Matthew shows that the words are not to be understood literally. For a fuller explanation see B.M.M., vol. 1, page 40.
Enquirer. — Is the Holy Spirit quenched in a meeting when the word “Let all things be done decently and in order (1 Cor. 14:4040Let all things be done decently and in order. (1 Corinthians 14:40)) is not attended to? The apostolic command is that everything in the assembly must be done “decently and in order.” The question then arises what “order” is referred to. Clearly it is not the “order” of man, but that which results from the sovereign action of the Holy Spirit in the assembly according to the principles laid down in this chapter (1 Cor. 14). For only where He is allowed to work as He will can there be an order and comeliness well-pleasing to the Lord. God’s order cannot be confusion (1 Cor. 14:3333For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints. (1 Corinthians 14:33)), any more than man’s order can be God’s. Humanly-conceived plans and arrangements obstruct or quench the Spirit’s working; and equally, if not more so, does human disorder. The assembly, above all, is the sphere for the free operation of the will of the Spirit (1 Cor. 12:1111But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will. (1 Corinthians 12:11)), but never for the will of man. If the flesh works there, what room remains for the Spirit?
F.B.— Please explain 1 John 4:2020If a man say, I love God, and hateth his brother, he is a liar: for he that loveth not his brother whom he hath seen, how can he love God whom he hath not seen? (1 John 4:20). The plain meaning of the text is that love to God and hatred of the children of God cannot co-exist in the same heart. A person pretending to love God, and yet disliking those who are His, the apostle calls “a liar.” It is a solemn test: the apostle John is always sweet, but always solemn.