I am sorry to think that any should need a word of explanation on a phrase or two in page 319, Col. 1. Nothing I venture to say is farther from the author than denying the resting place of his soul, and the doctrine he has ever preached—the atoning death of Christ. This is not the question, but the value of “Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit” as compared with “My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?” Is not the one the expression of Christ’s total abandonment by God on the cross for our sins? Does not the other equally convey His departure after this in perfect confidence in and dependence on His Father? Is this last the expression of God’s judgment on sin? The author does not deny death in the fullest sense by speaking of Christ’s passing through it in His soul; and when he speaks of its being “more than pure,” the meaning is explained by what follows” which has put away sin.” Is this questioned? Is it not more than pure? Pure it always was; now that He had thus died, it went to His Father more than pure, i.e., the witness of redemption already effected. And this was proclaimed to man in resurrection. Curt and abrupt phraseology I admit; but I repudiate the wicked imputation put on our brother’s words. Even the greatest of inspired men presents things hard to be understood; is he to be blamed? or the Spirit who used him?