The Miracles of Christ

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Q. Is it a scriptural thought that Christ did all His miracles simply as a dependent man? Did He not perform them by virtue of being the God-man? If the latter is correct, why did He say in John 11:41,41Then they took away the stone from the place where the dead was laid. And Jesus lifted up his eyes, and said, Father, I thank thee that thou hast heard me. (John 11:41) “Father, I thank Thee that Thou hast heard Me”?
A. The power was of God, but no miracle was wrought save in perfect obedience to His Father’s will. The object of the miracles was to show that Christ was the Son of God, hence they are recorded for this end (John 20:30-3130And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book: 31But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name. (John 20:30‑31)). He wrought them by the power of God (Luke 11:2020But if I with the finger of God cast out devils, no doubt the kingdom of God is come upon you. (Luke 11:20)), but He also had power in Himself by virtue of being not only man but God (John 5:21; 10:1821For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth them; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will. (John 5:21)
18No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. (John 10:18)). As man He said John 11:4141Then they took away the stone from the place where the dead was laid. And Jesus lifted up his eyes, and said, Father, I thank thee that thou hast heard me. (John 11:41). Christ therefore did not do miracles merely as a dependent man, for He had divine power, neither did He do them merely as Almighty God, for He was a dependent man. He did them in His inseparable and mysterious character of the God-man, Christ Jesus.
The Bible Student, Vol. 2, pg. 228