"Therefore God" vs. "Therefore, O God"

Narrator: Chris Genthree
Duration: 1min
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Question: Which is more exact, in Heb. 1:88But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. (Hebrews 1:8), “Therefore God, [even] thy God,” &e.; or, “Therefore, O God, thy God,” &c.? And why? C.
Answer: As far as grammar is concerned, I think there need be no question that both the Hebrew and the Greek are capable of either construction. Compare Psa. 50:7; 67:77Hear, O my people, and I will speak; O Israel, and I will testify against thee: I am God, even thy God. (Psalm 50:7)
7God shall bless us; and all the ends of the earth shall fear him. (Psalm 67:7) for the nominative; and Psa. 43:44Then will I go unto the altar of God, unto God my exceeding joy: yea, upon the harp will I praise thee, O God my God. (Psalm 43:4) for the vocative, as noticed by another. In verse 8, ὁ Θεὸς is unquestionably used in a vocative sense; but this is no way necessary here. The context must decide; and to my mind the anointing would not be congruous with the vocative force in verse 9, so that I incline to the Authorized Version.