What Grounds for "Farewell" Instead of "Rejoice"?

Philippians 3:1; Philippians 4:4  •  1 min. read  •  grade level: 10
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Answer: Nothing but pedantry. The verb as a secondary meaning is used for “saluting,” and so for “farewell”; but this sense is in narrow contextual bounds, as Matt. 26:49; 27:29; 28:949And forthwith he came to Jesus, and said, Hail, master; and kissed him. (Matthew 26:49)
29And when they had platted a crown of thorns, they put it upon his head, and a reed in his right hand: and they bowed the knee before him, and mocked him, saying, Hail, King of the Jews! (Matthew 27:29)
9And as they went to tell his disciples, behold, Jesus met them, saying, All hail. And they came and held him by the feet, and worshipped him. (Matthew 28:9); Mark 15:1818And began to salute him, Hail, King of the Jews! (Mark 15:18); Luke 1:2828And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favored, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. (Luke 1:28); John 19:33And said, Hail, King of the Jews! and they smote him with their hands. (John 19:3); Acts 15:23; 23:2623And they wrote letters by them after this manner; The apostles and elders and brethren send greeting unto the brethren which are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cilicia: (Acts 15:23)
26Claudius Lysias unto the most excellent governor Felix sendeth greeting. (Acts 23:26); James 1:11James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting. (James 1:1), and 2 John 1010If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed: (2 John 10), 11. Everywhere else it means “rejoice,” or “be glad,” and emphatically so in the Epistle to the Philippians where it is an evident keynote, as in 1:18, 2:17, 18, 28, 3:1, 4:4, 10. What would be the sense of “Farewell in the Lord alway”? Yet this is long after 3:1, where “farewell” would be therefore unnatural. Then we have also to take account of the kindred “joy” (χάρα) in the same Epistle, as in 1:4, 25, 2:2, 29, and 4:1 which it is impossible to mistake. But the verb ought not to be confounded as the A.V. does with καυχάομαι, “I boast” as in Rom. 5:2, 112By whom also we have access by faith into this grace wherein we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God. (Romans 5:2)
11And not only so, but we also joy in God through our Lord Jesus Christ, by whom we have now received the atonement. (Romans 5:11), Phil. 3:33For we are the circumcision, which worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh. (Philippians 3:3), James 1:9; 4:169Let the brother of low degree rejoice in that he is exalted: (James 1:9)
16But now ye rejoice in your boastings: all such rejoicing is evil. (James 4:16). It may surprise one that so profound a scholar as the late Bp. Lightfoot should express the opinion on Phil. 3:11Finally, my brethren, rejoice in the Lord. To write the same things to you, to me indeed is not grievous, but for you it is safe. (Philippians 3:1) that the word conveys both meanings here, referring also to 2:18, 4:4. Spiritual perception is another thing, and indispensable for the right rendering of scripture.